Nation means race

Nation?

No. Goy is RACE!

“Goy” was translated by the KJV as “nation” in the following verse JUST like it was when God told Rebekah two “goy were in her womb”:

Genesis 21:13: And also of the son of the bondwoman will I make a nation, because he [is] thy seed.

Who is God referring to here? Ishmael. Who are Ishmael’s descendants? The Arabs. Were the Arabs one *nation*? No, they’re a number of nations. BUT THEY ARE ONE *RACE*.

What do Saudi Arabia and Qatar and Kuwait and Iraq and Jordan and Syria have in common? They’re all nations. What else? They’re all *Arab* nations. Is *Arab* a religion? NO, IT’S A *RACE*. Arabs are the *race* who’re all descendants of Abraham, thru Ishmael.

Isn’t this exactly the same concept of *race* that God had in mind when He told Rebekah two *goy* were in her womb?

Yes, they *might* have been twins—but this is proof positive that God MADE them different RACES right from the start, ON PURPOSE:

Gen 12:2 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing:

H1471

go^y go^y

go'ee, go'-ee

Apparently from the same root as H1465 (in the sense of massing); a foreign nation; hence a Gentile; also (figuratively) a troop of animals, or a flight of locusts: - Gentile, heathen, nation, people

Total KJV Occurrences: 559

nations, 266

Did God promise Abraham that descendants of Jacob would be comprised "of one or more nationalities"? NO. He commanded Israelites to KILL mamzers and other non-Israelites [read: nations] who even TOUCH the mount. When He said "thou shalt not kill", He used the Hebrew word ratsach, which refers only to Israelites killing fellow Israelites. His commandment excludes Israelites killing non-Israelites, making sure that this RACE excluded non-Israelites, or at least made the Israelite community a very uncomfortable place for a non-Israelite to live.

In Genesis 25:23, the LORD told Rebekah that she had "two nations [read: goy] in thy womb". Could she have had two "communit[ies] of people composed of one or more nationalities and possessing a more or less defined territory and government" in her womb? Talk about a womb with a view!

This word "goy" is the same word that "nations" is translated from in Leviticus 18:24 and Deuteronomy 7:1 where it's more obvious that 'goy" refers to RACES rather than mere nations, and that it can mean either the race of Israel, or other races:

Where's the Scripture which tells us that the Perizzites or Hivites were "communit[ies] of people composed of one or more nationalities and possessing a more or less defined territory and government"? It doesn't exist, so goy in this context can ONLY mean RACE, not nations, heathens, gentiles, nor people. Note also that Ammonites are pure descendants of Ammon and Moabites are pure descendants of Moab (neither of whom are permitted into the congregation of the LORD forever), and Edomites are descendants of Esau who God hated, and they are all also referred to as goy, which is again [improperly] translated as nations:

Goy here cannot mean nation as we have no evidence that their territories were occupied by people other than the pure descendants of their "stock". It may mean heathens, except that none of the translators viewed it this way. It also could mean people or gentiles, but what's the practical difference between calling them either of those words or calling them RACES? The only word which is a perfect fit in this verse is RACES:

This is also true for virtually every other verse where the word "goy" appears. Neither "foreign nations", "gentiles", "troop of animals", "flight of locusts", "nations", "heathen", nor "people", combined, fit the Scripture as tightly as the single English word RACE!

So when judeochristians proclaim to you that "many nations" in Zechariah 2:11 means the whole world, including Esau whom God HATED, and Ammonites and Moabites who are prohibited FOREVER, and Adamites whom God commanded the Israelites to totally destroy including even their canaries, and the Egyptians and Assyrians whom God said were of ANOTHER god, and beasts [read: behemah] whom God made as slaves for Israelites--tel lthem to get lost:

To further obfuscate the Word of God, the KJV translators confused the word which meant "country" with "places", and the word which meant "races" with "nations:

Note that the word "maqom" [Strong's #4725] which is translated as "places" above is translated as "country" in the following verse:

Why did the KJV translators believe (or at least assert) that this one Hebrew word had to different (and perhaps contradictory) meanings? Because if they'd translated it as country" in Jeremiah 29:14, it would have read like this:

Just like in English, in Hebrew, there's no practical difference between "nations" and "countries", so if the translators had been consistent in their translation [and faithful to the Word of God], they would have translated "maqom" as "country", which would have forced them to translate "goy" as "race":

Why did they NOT translate it as "race", since the etymology of the word proves that it preceded the time of the KJV translation? If "goy" does NOT mean "race"--then where in the Word of God, who MADE the races, and who COMMANDED us to keep the races seprate, does the word "race" appear?